Question 2:
Since the US stock market changed to the T+1 trading rule, there have been two technical problems in less than a week. The first time was not reported publicly. Why?
This time, Berkshire Hathaway's stock price was abnormal, but the Bloomberg analysts, economic experts, and US stock analysts who I often follow in foreign media, who basically have professional backgrounds, did not mention it at all? Do they really think that this abnormality is not a problem? Or do they deliberately ignore it?
